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Additional resources for earning interest in gold

10 responses to “Why Do Investors Tolerate It, Report 17 Dec 2018”

  1. In response to your question, I suggest that a good gold bond design would be non-amortizing, but with relatively short duration, like 3-5 years, with options for both lender and borrower to roll over to another term. You can make the offering more favorable to the lender by locking in the rate for 15 years, say, with an option every three years. Or, reverse those terms to make it more attractive to the borrower, if you like.

  2. Sounds almost like a dividend or a long-term lease agreement. Personally I’d call a perpetual loan an investment, more like a I was holding a share, precisely because I’m exposed to higher risk of default. The terms depend on lender & borrower expectations and then hash out something that runs down the middle.

  3. Prior to 1933 gold bonds were commonplace. I’m not informed about how they were structured but wouldn’t they serve as a model for gold bond issuance nowadays? As a potential lender via a gold bond, I think that I would want the bond to be self-liquidating – i.e. to have a fixed maturity rather than to be perpetual. U.S. Treasury-bills, -notes, and -bonds are primarily defined by their maturities with T-notes usually considered having a maturity out to as much as 10 years. I’m not sure if your gold bond would fall into the notes category or the bonds category; that might be up to the terms that both borrower and lender agree upon. Given present day financial conditions, as a potential lender to a commercial borrower I think I would want my principal back no later than 10 years although I understand that institutional investors might be comfortable with a longer time frame. A question: does your “yield on gold paid in gold” mean that the bondholder receives periodic interest in gold or that the interest is paid in full only at the time of maturity?

  4. Today’s credit markets are unusually liquid. Amazingly so. What most don’t remember, however, is that “liquidity is a chicken”. At the first sign of real trouble we can expect credit market liquidity to dry up almost instantly. First, lending standards will tighten… and if things deteriorate further banks and other intermediaries will simply shut off access to all but the most credit worthy customers. That’s the way it always is. In fact, if is wasn’t for the “Greenspan Put” or the “Bernanke Put” (and the promise of “helicopter money”) I believe things would have already changed.

    In other words, the next good recession/depression will end this perpetual bond nonsense. (But alas, “today is not that day”) Today, the party continues.

    As an example of credit market changes that are possible, consider what happened to the mortgage market back in ’07 – ’09 Defaults started, credit standards tightened, down payment requirements increased, and so on. You see, as the real estate market dropped we were reminded once again that “liquidity is a chicken!”

    But that was just one sector. NOW imagine a world where the financial stresses and defaults are widespread, and world wide.
    Would that change things? You bet. What if the entire planet slowed down? Let’s say Europe slowed first (happening now) and then the emerging markets, and Asia… then the U.S. Is there never any concern about repayment? That’s crazy… we’ve been spoiled by access to virtually unlimited credit. Phony credit at that!

    As a lender, I vote for amortization. It’s like a dividend. If a company doesn’t have sufficient cash flow to pay me a dividend, something’s wrong. A principle payment tells me that everything is going reasonably well.

    As a borrower, sure, I’d vote for no amortization! It’s a matter of self-interest.

    My perspective is obviously old school. Don’t like it? Then tell me, how’s the new school been working out for ya? You know…. the school of thought that has lead the entire country if not the entire world into bankruptcy? Yeah, that one. So I’d say the old school is looking pretty darn good right now.

  5. I’d expect a vibrant gold bond market to offer a range of products, callable and non-callable bonds crossed with both amortizing and non-amortizing instruments. Each prices a different credit/risk assessment, but only the non-callable, non-amortized, bond with (quarterly) coupon interest payments and principal due at maturity is the “pure” product. You can model all the others as compounds (ladders) of pure bonds.

    That said, the business model and its maturity will determine how its credit risk should be priced. In the case of a nascent gold bond marketer, the primary hurdle is to establish the best possible credit reputation so as to drive the bond yield down to the desired long term borrowing rate for the enterprise when running at optimum (business maturity). Since in Monetary Metals situation the market is rather small and will be ‘feeding’ off of repeat business until it can grow its financial market share, I’d think amortizing bonds fit the picture best (or what would be equivalent, a yield-curve across various durations, with very little long-term borrowing at first while you must pay higher yields to compensate the risk long term lenders take in a new enterprise).

    The answer will always depend on the circumstances of each bond issuance, and for the first many rounds, a lot of information is being conveyed and market structure being formed. The higher yields are the borrower’s price for building a credit reputation. As that gets built it changes the circumstances of subsequent bond issuance. Plan to succeed.

    • One further thought: I just read the tax reporting rules for amortizing bonds (the return of principal denominated in gold is likely to incur a dollar-denominated capital gain/loss component in the tax treatment of the proceeds). For that glitch alone, it may be best to let the buyer structure a ladder if (s)he’d like something that recovers principal stepwise over the life of the bond(s).

        • Yes, it certainly should be that simple; if the bond was purchased with a gold transfer or the bond’s gold principal was purchased with dollars, it should retain its basis cost and the taxable gain or loss would only be realized when it is traded for dollars. Still, in the case of an amortized bond, the (gold) interest probably needs to be reported as a dollar amount of interest paid and you’d need to separate out the (gold) principal-return portion. The bond owner may also have to track basis across a more complex portfolio.

          Suppose an amortized gold bond has returned half of its principal and is then sold (in either gold or dollars) for a capital gain/loss vs the bond purchase basis minus the returned principal. A gain/loss denominated in gold is a capital return on the bond asset, what is the basis of any new or remaining gold in one’s portfolio? Does realizing a gain/loss on the sale of the bond (for a new amount of gold, presumably) change one’s per ounce basis? It seems that these distinctions would matter if gains and losses on gold buliion are taxed at a different rate than similar gains or losses on the securities derived from the bullion.

          I am certainly no expert, nor any friend to taxing authorities. I also don’t think it would be wise for Monetary Metals to proffer tax advice. But it’d be nice to have an overview of how tax law has historically applied to these topics. I just observe that amortized securities pose relatively more complex accounting for the basic transactions.

        • As you must know, gold bullion is taxed as a “collectible”, so that long-term capital gains do not qualify for a 0% rate bracket (if your marginal rate is 15%) and are always taxed at your ordinary income tax rate up to a cap of 28%. This applies to bullion ETFs also, but not to derivatives in the gold futures markets.

          As a “security’, a gold bond should be taxed like an ordinary dollar-denominated bond (or perhaps a better analog would be a bond in some other non-dollar currency). I’m just trying to tease out which parts of a gold-denominated bond contract transaction will be current ordinary income and/or current investment income and which parts would be sales or purchases of a collectible. I’ve been assuming that coupon payments made in gold are current ordinary interest income reported as dollar amount at the exchange rate prevailing on the coupon date–that amount then being one’s basis in the new collectible asset lot.

          I suppose there could be another taxing model, where payment made in gold is not current income, but rather just a non-taxable stock dividend wherein you’d lower your basis per ounce held and wait to realize the (dollar) income until the collectible is sold. That should lower the tax rate on the coupon payment for anyone above a 28% marginal rate and also defer the tax until the gold position is sold (when hell freezes over). Somehow I think that accounting would need special dispensation from the IRS ;-).

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